An Exegesis and Analysis of Philippians 2:6-11 [Part 2]

 

2:9-11 - Christ's Exaltation

v. 9a - Therefore God has highly exalted him - διὸ καὶ ὁ θεὸς αὐτὸν ὑπερύψωσεν

Here we have a "shift" in the narrative. Now God is the subject of the verbs, and this hymn seems to speak of the result of everything in verse 6-8. 

"God the Father is now presented as decisively intervening and acting on his Son's behalf." (O'Brien: 232-33)

The meaning of διὸ καὶ 

διὸ καὶ are often translated as "therefore" or "therefore also". This leads to the question of whether or not Christ's exaltation was a reward for His obedience and humiliation described in the previous verses? 

First, it should be noted that διὸ καὶ is a strong inferential conjunction. Elsewhere in the NT, it carries the sense of "that is why...":

"And the angel answered her, 'The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; therefore [διὸ καὶ] the child to be born will be called holy—the Son of God. " (Luke 1:35)

"So [διὸ καὶ] when I was sent for, I came without objection. I ask then why you sent for me.' " (Acts 10:29)

"That is why [διὸ καὶ] his faith was 'counted to him as righteousness.” (Romans 4:22)

" So [διὸ καὶ] Jesus also suffered outside the gate in order to sanctify the people through his own blood. " (Hebrews 13:12)

People such as John Calvin (and later Karl Barth) argued strongly against any notion of "reward" here. However, this seems to strain the meaning of διὸ καὶ. The plain meaning is that God exalted Jesus as a reward for His obedience. Nonetheless, we should be careful in the way in which we formulate this.

Moises Silva provides a helpful way of understanding this:

"...the Christ-hymn, though it certainly describes Christ's sacrificial work, does not have as its primary object setting forth the vicarious character of his obedience. In other words, we need not fear that an emphasis on the gracious character of God's act in exalting Jesus subverts the principle of Christ's meritorious obedience on behalf of his people. Second, the Christ-hymn implies a correspondence between Christ's experience and the believer's sanctification leading to glorification, not between Christ's exaltation and the sinner's justification." (Moises Silva, Baker Exegetical Commentary on the New Testament - Philippians [Baker Academic, Grand Rapids, MI 1992], pg. 109)

This passage (taken it in the context of Paul's exhortation to believers) in no way teaches that humans merit salvation before God. The Apostle elsewhere explicitly teaches that we are justified by faith alone apart from works (a doctrine which I have defended in other articles on this website). 

G. Walter Hansen says the following:

"Yes. But our Yes must be qualified in several important ways. First, the hymn does not view the reward as the motive for Christ's obedience. Thus, Christ's obedience does not exemplify obeying in order to deserve a reward. Second, the hymn does not present the reward as redemption from sin. The hymn does not lead to the supposition that obedience can earn the reward of salvation from sin, nor does the hymn offer any hope that redemption can be received as compensation for obedience.219 The reward given to Christ was vindication by God: God vindicated Christ's death on a cross by exalting him to the highest place. Third, the hymn views the reward as a gracious gift. God gave the name above every name not as compensation for Christ's work, but as proof of divine approval of his work. Fourth, the hymn views the reward as divine confirmation of Christ's true identity, not as an acquisition of a new position. The true identity of the one existing in the form of God and equal to God was hidden by the humiliation of death on a cross, but was revealed by God's act of exalting him and giving him the name of Lord. As long as these four qualifications of the concept of reward are kept in mind, God's exaltation of Christ may be properly understood as God's way of graciously rewarding Christ by vindicating him after his death on a cross and by revealing his divine nature after his humiliation." (G. Walter Hansen, The Pillar New Testament Commentary - The Letter to the Philippians, [William B. Erdmans Publishing Company, Grand Rapids, MI 2009], pg. 161)

The meaning of ὑπερύψωσεν ("highly exalted")

"The verb exalted is an unusual compound found only here in the NT. By adding the prefix above to the verb exalt, the verb designates the highest possible exaltation." (G. Walter Hansen, The Pillar New Testament Commentary - The Letter to the Philippians, [William B. Erdmans Publishing Company, Grand Rapids, MI 2009], pg. 161)

This is confirmed by the use of the same verb in the OT (LXX):

" For you, O LORD, are most high over all the earth; you are exalted [ὑπερυψώθης] far above all gods." (Psalm 97:9 LXX)

Thus, the verb is used in a superlative sense, not in a comparative sense. Christ is not exalted to a place which he was not at previously. 

"both contextual and linguistic considerations strongly suggest that the verb has a superlative or, more strictly, an elative force connoting Jesus' exaltation to a position over the whole of creation (rather than comparative force in relation to this preexistence)." (Peter T. O'Brien, The New International Greek Testament Commentary - The Epistle to the Philippians [William B. Eerdmans Publishing Company, Grand Rapids, MI 1991], pg. 236) 

v. 9b - and bestowed on him the name that is above every name, - καὶ ἐχαρίσατο αὐτῷ ⸀τὸ ὄνομα τὸ ὑπὲρ πᾶν ὄνομα,

What is "the name" which God gave to Jesus? Moule, contrary to many other commentators, says that the name given after His exaltation is "Jesus". However, there is evidence which strongly indicates that the name given Jesus is "LORD":

First of all, it is important to recognize that a "name" in the time period in which this hymn was written also had the significance of showing forth the true nature of a particular person. This is seen in the Old Testament

" Afterward his brother came out with his hand holding Esau's heel, so his name was called Jacob" (Genesis 25:26)

" Let not my lord regard this worthless fellow, Nabal, for as his name is, so is he. Nabal is his name, and folly is with him. " (1 Samuel 25:25)

Second, the book of Isaiah emphasizes the significance and uniqueness of the name LORD (Yahweh). Here is one example:

" I am the LORD; that is my name; my glory I give to no other, nor my praise to carved idols. " (Isaiah 42:8)

Thus, it would be fitting to say that LORD is the name above every name. Thus, Jesus has the title of LORD. 

Third, the context in verse 11 (which we will examine) seems to indicate that "Lord" is the name which was given to Jesus in his exaltation. 

v. 10a - so that at the name of Jesus -  ἵνα ἐν τῷ ὀνόματι Ἰησοῦ 

What should we say about the ἵνα conjunction used here? Though I did not do as much research into this particular issue, it seems likely that ἵνα functions (at least) partly in the sense of "purpose". Thus these verses show the result/purpose of Christ's exaltation.

Regarding  ἐν τῷ ὀνόματι Ἰησοῦ, this "name" is "Lord", not the name "Jesus" itself.  Pay careful attention to the way in which the phrase runs "at the name of Jesus" (genitive; the name "belonging to" Jesus, i.e. Lord), not "at the name Jesus". 

"By referring to the name of Jesus, the hymn is focusing on the name Lord that belongs to Jesus as a result of God's exaltation of Jesus and God's gracious gift of the name Lord to Jesus." (G. Walter Hansen, The Pillar New Testament Commentary - The Letter to the Philippians, [William B. Eerdmans Publishing Company, Grand Rapids, MI 2009], pg. 164)

"It is not 'the name Jesus', but 'the name which belongs to Jesus' that is meant." (Ralph P. Martin, Carmen Christi: Philippians 2.5-11 in Recent Interpretation and in the Setting of Early Christian Worship [Cambridge University Press 1967], pg. 250)

v. 10b-11a - every knee should bow, in heaven, and on earth, and under the earth, and every tongue confess, - πᾶν γόνυ κάμψῃ ἐπουρανίων καὶ ἐπιγείων καὶ καταχθονίων, καὶ πᾶσα γλῶσσα ἐξομολογήσηται

(Here, I treat together both of the phrases "every knee shall bow" as well as "every tongue shall confess")

This unit of text is very significant for understanding the clear and unambiguous testimony of Philippians 2 to the deity (as well as the true humanity) of Jesus Christ. First, it should be noted that this text has been recognized by many scholars to have an OT parallel in the book of Isaiah, chapter 45 in particular. 

"The two expressions, 'every knee shall bow' and 'every tongue shall confess', are dependent on the LXX text of Is. 45:23."  (Peter T. O'Brien, The New International Greek Testament Commentary - The Epistle to the Philippians [William B. Eerdmans Publishing Company, Grand Rapids, MI 1991], pg. 241)

Interestingly, here is what Isaiah 45:23 says in context:

"Declare and present your case; let them take counsel together! Who told this long ago? Who declared it of old? Was it not I, the LORD? And there is no other god besides me, a righteous God and a Savior; there is none besides me. “Turn to me and be saved, all the ends of the earth! For I am God, and there is no other. By myself I have sworn; from my mouth has gone out in righteousness a word that shall not return: ‘To me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear allegiance.’ " (Isaiah 45:21-23)

The New Treasury of Scripture Knowledge (1992) on page 1394 confirms that Isaiah 45:23 is indeed a cross reference to this passage in Philippians 2. 

Here is a comparison between the wording of Isaiah 45:23 (Septuagint) and Philippians 2. Notice the similarities; 

Isaiah 45:23 LXX: ὅτι ἐμοὶ κάμψει πᾶν γόνυ καὶ ἐξομολογήσεται πᾶσα γλῶσσα τῷ θεῷ

Philippians 2:10b-11a Greek: πᾶν γόνυ κάμψῃ….καὶ πᾶσα γλῶσσα ἐξομολογήσηται 

"In addition, Isa 45:23, which records God as saying 'Unto me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear allegiance," is woven here into the structure of vv 10-11 and applied to Jesus." (Gerald F. Hawthorne, Word Biblical Commentary - Philippians [Word Books, Waco, TX 1983], pg. 92)

In the OT, bowing on one's knees was a symbol of submission. Here are a few examples:

And he made him ride in his second chariot. And they called out before him, “Bow the knee!” Thus he set him over all the land of Egypt. (Genesis 41:43)

"And at the evening sacrifice I rose from my fasting, with my garment and my cloak torn, and fell upon my knees and spread out my hands to the LORD my God, " (Ezra 9:5)

"Oh come, let us worship and bow down; let us kneel before the LORD, our Maker! " (Psalm 95:6)

Finally, the hymn further reveals the universality of submission to Christ when it declares that all of creation whether it be on "heaven", or "earth", or "under the earth" will confess that Jesus is Lord. Many scholars see here a reference to the cosmic powers (perhaps of the underworld) in the phrase "under the earth". This is true in one sense, in that the demons "under the earth" will indeed submit to Christ. But this text is not merely saying that the demons will bow the knee. The text clearly states that all of creation will bow the knee and submit to Christ's lordship. 

The verb ἐξομολογήσηται in its basic definition means "to declare openly or confess publicly" (O'Brien: 247). Thus, this passage does not say that every creature will be confessing that Christ is Lord with praise and thanksgiving. This text carries the idea of "admitting" that Jesus is Lord. 

v. 11b -  that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father. - ὅτι κύριος Ἰησοῦς Χριστὸς εἰς δόξαν θεοῦ πατρός

The confession that Jesus is κύριος is often viewed by some as one of the earliest Christian confessions (Romans 10:9). Here (in the Greek, that is) it is placed in front of the name "Jesus Christ" showing the emphasis on the name (Hansen: 166)

As far as I know, Rudolf Bultmann thought that this line (or at least part of it) was a Pauline addition to the hymn. Whether that is true or not, the phrase is a fitting climax to the entire hymn. Jesus' lordship results in the glory of God the Father:

" For I tell you that Christ became a servant to the circumcised to show God's truthfulness, in order to confirm the promises given to the patriarchs, " (Romans 15:8)

Conclusion

Based off of this two-part series of articles, we have carefully dissected the meaning of this passage of Scripture in the New Testament, showing its clear testimony to Christ's deity as well as handling some of the major exegetical problems in the interpretation of this text. 

"Farther, that man is utterly blind who does not perceive that his [Christ's] eternal divinity is clearly set forth in these words" (John Calvin, source)