Dave Armstrong and I engaged in the combox (link) on my previous post regarding the issues mentioned in the title. He has provided some further material in his original response post to me on his website, so I thought I would address some of the things he said as well as clarify my comments on 2 Thessalonians 3:6 (and obviously 2:15 as well) and what I meant when I spoke of Chrysostom's view of tradition as a way of life, rather than doctrine. DA's words will be in red. My words from the previous article will be in blue.
Matt made a “Counter-Counter Response”. In this, the gist of his argument was to claim that the “tradition” St. John Chrysostom referred to in the passage I highlighted was only practice and not doctrine. This was his way of trying to escape my argument. He contended:
Here is where I must clarify things. I said that it might be the case that this was Chrysostom's definition of tradition in 2 Thess. 2:15, in light of his comments on 3:6. I did not put it forward as my main argument. I would actually say that 2 Thessalonians 2:15 is most likely referring to doctrine (namely, the gospel [cf. 2:14]), being passed down in two different ways: written Scripture and oral preaching in Thessalonica. Here are my original comments in my "Counter-Counter Response" on this issue:
In St. Paul’s epistles (I noted in my first book in 1996), tradition, gospel, and word of God are synonymous concepts. They’re all predominantly oral, not written, and are referred to as being “delivered” and “received”:
1 Corinthians 11:2 . . . maintain the traditions . . . . even as I have delivered them to you.
2 Thessalonians 2:15 . . . hold to the traditions . . . . taught . . . by word of mouth or by letter.
2 Thessalonians 3:6 . . . the tradition that you received from us.
1 Corinthians 15:1 . . . the gospel, which you received . . .
Galatians 1:9 . . . the gospel . . . which you received.
1 Thessalonians 2:9 . . . we preached to you the gospel of God.
1 Thessalonians 2:13 . . . you received the word of God, which you heard from us, . . . (cf. Acts 8:14)
Each of these verses (with the exception of 2 Thessalonians 3:6, and possibly 1 Corinthians 11:2, which I will discuss briefly below) is referring to the gospel, which actually strengthens my argument that 2 Thessalonians 2:15 refers to the two means of the gospel being passed down, which DA essentially indirectly admits when he says that "tradition, gospel, and word of God are synonymous concepts." Not only that, but this shows that the oral "traditions" were probably later on committed to writing (presumably 2 Thessalonians itself). Surely, Dave would not say that the gospel is not found (explicitly or implicitly) in the Scriptures.
Regarding 1 Corinthians 11:2, there is a bit of a minor debate among the commentaries as to whether this is talking about doctrine or practice (this chapter is where the Apostle Paul discusses the issue of women wearing head coverings, thus this could be an argument for the "practice" interpretation). I think if one were to go with the "practice" interpretation, DA's argument would be fall apart. If one were to say this is talking about doctrine, then again, this is referring to Paul's teaching, not to some sort of ongoing, magisterium, which can define dogmas that are nowhere found in Scripture, like the Bodily Assumption. Speaking of which, I would be curious to know if DA thinks the Apostle Paul taught the doctrine of the Bodily Assumption to the church in Thessalonica (or any church for that matter). It is a thought-provoking question indeed which must be asked if one interprets the "traditions" of 2 Thessalonians 2:15 to include the 20th century dogma defined by Rome.
In short, I think I have addressed DA's main points and have showed (with all due respect to DA, though) that they do not stand up under scrutiny. I appreciate that Dave has taken the time to read my material and response. Hopefully, we can continue to have a respectful and productive discussion on these issues.
2 comments:
There's nowhere else to go with this. I thought I hit a grand slam and you think I proved absolutely nothing. LOL We're pretty much talking past each other. So, time to move on from this one. I will link to your latest reply in my paper, too, to be fair to you.
I would deny that Mary's Assumption is "nowhere found in Scripture." It's certainly not explicitly, but it is deductively or implicitly. I have made a biblical argument for the Immaculate Conception:
https://www.patheos.com/blogs/davearmstrong/2016/01/marys-immaculate-conception-a-biblical-argument.html
If that succeeds (on the Bible alone), then from the absence of original sin would follow the lack of decay after death. Other arguments can be made by analogy:
https://www.ncregister.com/blog/biblical-arguments-in-support-of-marys-assumption
Well, alrighty then. I appreciate that you took the time to read my articles and respond. I will probably link this material on my blog as well sometime soon.
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